Wesley Corpus

18.) Where is the proof, my Lord? How does it appear that he is speaking either of the Christian or Jewish law in those words, “Ye have received the Spirit of adop tion, whereby we cry, Abba, Father?” However, you infer, “Christians them are the adopted sons of God, in contradistinc tion to the Jews, as the former had the gifts of the Holy Ghost, which none of the latter had at that time; and the body of the Jews never had.” No, nor the body of the Christians neither: So that, if this be a proof against the Jews, it is the very same against the Christians. I must observe farther on the preceding words, (1.) That your Lordship begins here, to take the word Christians in a new and peculiar sense, for the whole body of the then Christian Church. (2) That it is a bad inference: “As (or because) they had the gifts of the Holy Ghost, therefore they were the sons of God.” On the one hand, if they were the children of God, it was not because they had those gifts. On the other, a man may have all those gifts, and yet be a child of the devil. 9. I conceive, not only that your Lordship has proved nothing hitherto, not one point that has any relation to the question, but that, strictly speaking, you have not attempted to prove any thing, having taken for granted whatever came in your way. In the same manner you proceed, “The Apostle goes on, ‘The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God.” This passage, as it is connected with the pre ceding one, relates to the general adoption of Christians, or their becoming the sons of God instead of the Jews.”--“This pas sage relates”--How is that proved? by its connexion with the preceding? In mowise, unless it be good arguing to prove ignotum per ignotius.” It has not yet been proved, that the preceding passage itself has any relation to this matter. * An unknown proposition by one that is less known.--EDIT. Your Lordship adds, “But what was the ground of this pre ference that was given to Christians?