Wesley Corpus

How does it appear that he does not speak of men corrupted both by choice and by nature? You answer, (3.) “He does not speak of himself, or any regenerate man, but of a Jew under the power of sin.” (Ibid.) Nay, your argument proves, he does not speak of any Jew; for in order to prove, “the Apostle does not speak of himself,” you say, “The persons of whom he speaks were, ‘before the commandment came, that is, before they came under the law, “once without the law. But the Apostle never was ‘without the law.’” No, nor any Jew. “For he was born and continued ‘under the law till he was a Christian.” So did all the Jews as well as he,--“ and therefore it cannot be true, that he,” or any Jew whatever, “was ‘without the law” before he came under it.” So you have clearly proved, that the Apostle does not in this passage speak of any Jew at all. But why do you think he does speak of Jews? may, of them only? It “appears,” you say, “from verse 1, ‘I speak to them that know the law. For the Gentiles never were “under the law.” Yes, they were: All the Gentiles who were “convinced of sin” were “under the law” in the sense here spoken of, under the condemning power of the law “written in their hearts;” for transgressing which they were under the wrath of God. And this whole chapter, from verses 7 to 24, describes the state of all those, Jews or Gentiles, who saw and felt the wickedness both of their hearts and lives, and groaned to be delivered from it. Many passages in your paraphrase on the former part of this chapter are liable to much exception; but as they do not imme diately touch the point in question, Ipass on tothe latter part: “Verse 14: I am ‘ carnal, sold under sin.” He means a willing slavery.” (Page 216.) Quite the contrary; as appears from the very next words: “For that which I do, I allow not: For what I would, I do not; but what I hate, that I do.” “What I hate;” not barely, “what my reason disapproves;” but what I really detest and abhor, yet cannot help.