Wesley Corpus

Are we, Jews, ‘better than they, Gentiles?” (Page 116, &c.) Nay, from that very verse he speaks chiefly of the Jews. And you yourself, a few pages ago, roundly affirmed that “he there spoke of the Jews only.” And will you affirm that, in the 4th chapter likewise, “he is speaking of the Gentiles only ?” Is it not manifest, that he does not speak of them at all in a considerable part of that chapter? How then does it appear, by “the whole thread of his discourse from the beginning of the Epistle, that he is here speaking, not of mankind in general, but of the Gentiles only?” However, you boldly go on : “Having established the point, that the Gentiles have as good a title to God’s favour as the Jews.” (Page 116.) How P Is this the only, or the chief point, which St. Paul establishes in the 4th chapter? Is not his main point throughout that chapter to prove, that both Jews and Gentiles were “justified by faith?” or, is he “speaking this, not of mankind in general, but of the Gentiles only P” “He proceeds: (Chap. v. 1:) ‘Therefore, being justified by faith, we, Gentiles, ‘have peace with God.’” In the same 270 ThE DOCTRINE OF manner you thrust in the word Gentiles into each of the fol lowing verses. Had then the Gentiles only “peace with God?” You might with more colour have inserted Jews in every verse; for of them chiefly the Apostle had been speak ing. To say that “he principally speaks of and to the Gen tiles, to the end of the 6th chapter,” (page 117,) is another assertion which cannot be proved. It is therefore by no means true, that “he is in this verse speaking of the Gentiles in contradistinction to the Jews.” You affirm, (2.) “By the same argument, he here considers the Gentiles only in a body, as distinguished from the body of the Jews; for so he does all along in the four first chap ters.” No, not in one of them.