Wesley Corpus

And his Lord was moved with compassion, and forgave him the debt.” Yet, afterwards, on his unmerci fulness to his fellow-servant, he retracted that forgiveness; “ and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him. So likewise shall my heavenly Father do unto you also, if ye from your heart forgive not every one his brother their trespasses.” (Matthew xviii. 23, &c.) Is not man here represented as having contracted a debt with God which he cannot pay? and God as having, nevertheless a right to insist upon the payment of it? and a right, if he hath not to pay, of delivering him to the tormentors? And is it not expressly asserted, that God will, in some cases, claim this right, and use it to the uttermost P Upon whom, then, lights this imputation of folly, and of “what is still worse?” “Lord,lay not this sin to their charge I Forgive them, for they know not what they do.” But if the Son of God did not die to atone for our sins, what did he die for ? You answer: “He died, “(1.) To extinguish our own hell within us.” (Spirit of Prayer, Part II., p. 159.) Nay, the Scripture represents this, not as the first, but the second, end of his death. “(2.) To show that he was above the world, death, hell, and Satan.” (Pages 130, 131.) Where is it written that he died for this end? Could he not have done this without dying at all? “(3.) His death was the only possible way of overcoming all the evil that was in fallen man.” (Page 129.) This is true, supposing he atoned for our sins. But if this supposition be not made, his death was not the only possible way whereby the Almighty could have overcome all things. “(4.) Through this he got power to give the same victory to all his brethren of the human race.” (Page (132.) Had he not this power before? Otherwise, how was he O ov, He that is ; “God over all, blessed for ever?” If Christ died for no other ends than these, what need was there of his being more than a creature?