Wesley Corpus

Paul uses it thrice in his Epistle to the Romans, five times in that to the Galatians, and in one passage of his former Epistle to the Corinthians; where he declares in what sense he was himself “under the law,” and in what sense he was not. “Unto them that are under the law,” (that still adhere to the whole Jewish dispensation,) “I became as under the law,” (I conformed to their ceremonies,) “that I might gain them that are under the law . But unto them that are without the law,” (unto the Gentiles or Heathens,) “as without the law: Being,” meantime, “not without law to God, but under the law to Christ.” (1 Cor. ix. 20, 21.) It is plain, therefore, the Apostle was “under the law” of Christ, though he was not “under the law” of ceremonies. Ant.--But does not St. Paul say to the believers at Rome, “Ye are not under the law, but under grace?” Friend.--He does; and his meaning is, “Ye are not under the Jewish, but the gracious Christian, dispensation:” As also in the next verse, where he says, “We are not under the law, but under grace.” Ant.--But what does he mean, when he says to the Galatians, “Before faith came, we were kept under the law?” Friend.--Doubtless he means, we were kept under the Jewish dispensation, till we believed in Christ. (iii. 19.) And so we read in the next chapter, “When the fulness of time was come, God sent forth his Son, made under the law,” (the Jewish dispensation,) “to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons;” (verses 4, 5;) might serve God, without fear, in righteousness and holiness, with a free, loving, child-like spirit. Ant.--You cannot persuade me to this; I know better. The law of works (the moral law, as you call it) is nothing to me. “From any demand of the law, no man is obliged to go one step, to give away one farthing, to eat, or omit one morsel. For what did our Lord do with the law He abolished it.” Friend.--However, ought not we, after we believe in him, to obey all the commandments of Christ?